What does finiteness mean?

What does finiteness mean?

1a : having definite or definable limits a finite number of possibilities. b : having a limited nature or existence finite beings. 2 : completely determinable in theory or in fact by counting, measurement, or thought the finite velocity of light.

What does the Latin word finite mean?

finite (adj.) early 15c., “limited in space or time, finite,” from Latin finitum, past participle of finire “to limit, set bounds; come to an end” (see finish (v.)). Related: Finitely; finiteness.

What does Infinitively mean?

(Grammar) a form of the verb not inflected for grammatical categories such as tense and person and used without an overt subject. In English, the infinitive usually consists of the word to followed by the verb.

What is the meaning of finitely many?

“All but finitely many” means that the set of points: (i.e. the set of all the points where the functions differ) has only finitely many members. Mathematically, we would say that the cardinality of is a natural number, or we would write .

What is finiteness linguistics?

Clauses or verbs in inflecting languages are often said to be finite or non-finite, which means that they either have or lack tense and/or person-number specifictions.

What is finite and example?

The definition of finite is something that has a limit that can’t be exceeded. An example of finite is the number of people who can fit in an elevator at the same time.

What does finite mean in the dictionary?

having bounds or limits; not infinite; measurable. Mathematics. (of a set of elements) capable of being completely counted. not infinite or infinitesimal.

What is infinitive and gerund?

Gerund = the present participle (-ing) form of the verb, e.g., singing, dancing, running. Infinitive = to + the base form of the verb, e.g., to sing, to dance, to run. Whether you use a gerund or an infinitive depends on the main verb in the sentence.

What does it mean by all but finitely many?

The clause “for all but finitely many” means that the statement in question fails to be true for only finitely many objects. Since there are infinitely many integers that are not even, “n is even for all but finitely many positive integers” is not correct.